A recent 1P situation came up that I have not yet had experience with.

I as player A am giving up 11-8 to player B.

Player B leads 7 to 0 with 0 balls spotted by Player A. (Player A still owes 3 fouls in effect)

Player A then runs the remaining 8 in one inning.

The question is whether Player A then spots all 3 balls at one time and continues to shoot or only spots 1 ball at a time (potentially 3 times) and shoots at that single ball.

A local Phoenix certified referee states that all 3 balls should be spotted after the last remaining ball is potted. A local top 1p phenom (the "Freezer") claims that a single ball is repeatedly spotted. Evidently Scott told me that Efren has in fact done this same exact thing to Scott with Effy making the single ball straight in several times .

Who is correct?. Is it one of those things that differs between Tournies and gambling, such as the 3 foul rule?

Thanks.

Bernie P.

I as player A am giving up 11-8 to player B.

Player B leads 7 to 0 with 0 balls spotted by Player A. (Player A still owes 3 fouls in effect)

Player A then runs the remaining 8 in one inning.

The question is whether Player A then spots all 3 balls at one time and continues to shoot or only spots 1 ball at a time (potentially 3 times) and shoots at that single ball.

A local Phoenix certified referee states that all 3 balls should be spotted after the last remaining ball is potted. A local top 1p phenom (the "Freezer") claims that a single ball is repeatedly spotted. Evidently Scott told me that Efren has in fact done this same exact thing to Scott with Effy making the single ball straight in several times .

Who is correct?. Is it one of those things that differs between Tournies and gambling, such as the 3 foul rule?

Thanks.

Bernie P.

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