1P versus 9-ball handicaps

gulfportdoc

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Jun 25, 2004
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12,654
From
Gulfport, Mississippi
I've often wondered how to translate 1P handicaps into 9-ball spots, or the reverse. There would naturally be a difference depending upon whether the guy is a "shooter" or a "mover", but all things being equal, would you say that 9-8 1P would be similar to the last two in 9-ball? Or 9-7 would be like giving the 8 in 9-ball? I've seen a mini-thread on the subject awhile back, but I don't recall where. Any opinions?

Doc
 

The Grinder

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Joined
Jan 23, 2006
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From
Grand Rapids, Michigan
I would have to disagree with you Doc. I think that giving someone a spot of 9-7 in one pocket is pretty substantial where as giving the 8 ball is not nearly as much weight. This of course depends on the caliber of play that we are talking about.
To give an example Efren giving Strickland the 8 would not be much weight at all, but efren giving Cliff Joyner 9-7 would be a lot of weight.
 

The Grinder

New Member
Joined
Jan 23, 2006
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From
Grand Rapids, Michigan
I guess I should'nt just disagree and then not offer an opinion. I think that a ball in one pocket is pretty equal to a game in a race to 9 playing nine ball. I am not sure exactly what that would equate to as far as giving a ball in nine ball. I think 9-7 is a hair stronger weight than giving some one the wild seven, maybe equal to the called 7-8.
 
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