Shannon 0 Efren -2 Does Shannon have a 2 ball...
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androd
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lll
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like rod said
shannon has to make 8
efren has to make 10
thats a 2 ball advantage to me....
shannon has to make 8
efren has to make 10
thats a 2 ball advantage to me....
unoperro
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It could mean that Shannon has 2 more balls than Efren, but that would be redundant if he just gave the score. It could also mean that the lay of the table favors Shannon by 2 balls. We can't criticize a man just getting cozy in his grave. RIP Grady
Cowboy Dennis
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You're right Rod, unless Shannon is giving up a free foul to Efren. Then Efren would have an easily calculated 3 1/2 ball advantage
.
androd
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So 10-8 is the same as 8-6 ?
No of course not, but with players this caliber it's hard to say owing two is equal to 8/7. It may make no difference at all, or it maybe the difference in the game. You have to call it something and the fellow said 2 balls. I find that hard to dispute.
Rod.
Patrick Johnson
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You're confusing quantity with importance. 2 balls can be more or less important depending on other things (like match length), but it's still 2 balls.
pj
chgo
unoperro
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Dont know that I am confused. I am stating that score is not always as simple as subtraction.
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tylerdurden
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Saying a player has a 2 ball advantage does not give all of the information, like giving the score would. I am sure those guys in the booth kinda struggle at times, like writers, with repeating things yet wording them differently.... which is probably a good idea. It is perfectly acceptable wording after stating the score. Chalk me up on the "this score is in fact a 2 ball advantage" side of things.
wincardona
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I don't know for a fact but i'm assuming that either the score was mentioned or known, when Grady said that Shannon had a two ball advantage. I would also believe that regardless of the score if either player had to make two more balls than his opponent it would be a two ball advantage. Agree? If you want to get technical you could also say that Shannon is a 125/100 favorite in the ball count. However, if you want to keep it simple..a two ball advantage 10/8 should be acceptable. Imo. Chalk me up with your side.
Bill Incardona
Cowboy Dennis
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All right, I'll give you the right answer that nobody has given yet.
Shannon does NOT have a two ball advantage because he has no balls. It would be correct to say that Efren is at a two ball disadvantage.
In the real world it makes no difference but this is the correct interpretation.
unoperro
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Exactly what I was thinking. I dont feel Grady was "wrong" just that statement was a
"Simplification" .
Billy was in the booth with Grady and didnt comment.
Belle of Baton Rouge LO1P GREAT COMMENTARY by both.
Patrick Johnson
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Long as we're talking semantics...
A disadvantage for Efren is an advantage for Shannon.
"Advantage" doesn't necessarily mean "have balls". What if they both owed balls, but one owed more? Would nobody have an advantage?
pj
chgo
wincardona
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You have too much sense to be a regular poster Patrick.
Shannon has the advantage.
Or
Reyes is at a disadvantage.
They both are acceptable , at least to me anyways.
Sorta like the gas tank being "half full" as opposed to "half empty" sorta.
Bill Incardona
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Cowboy Dennis
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O.K. PJ, I'll bite
.Shannon is no closer to winning the game than he was before it started, thus he has no advantage. Efren is farther away from winning the game than he was when the game started, thus Efren has the disadvantage.
Efren could owe 20 balls and Shannon still doesn't get closer to winning because of it.
Dennis
Patrick Johnson
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I don't think "the advantage" is measured by how close Shannon is to winning (absolute); I think it's measured by how much closer he is to winning than Efren is (relative).
[Deleted the rest of my too-long-winded post.]
pj <- just shootin' the breeze, Dennis
...chgo
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wincardona
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You're correct with saying that Shannon has the advantage for the reason you statedI don't think "the advantage" is measured by how close Shannon is to winning (absolute); I think it's measured by how much closer he is to winning than Efren is (relative).
[Deleted the rest of my too-long-winded post.]
pj <- just shootin' the breeze, Dennis
chgo
Bill Incardona
tylerdurden
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O.K. PJ, I'll bite
Shannon is no closer to winning the game than he was before it started, thus he has no advantage. Efren is farther away from winning the game than he was when the game started, thus Efren has the disadvantage.
Efren could owe 20 balls and Shannon still doesn't get closer to winning because of it.
Dennis
Cmon, I know you don't mean that. Saying there is no advantage here is the same as saying there is no advantage in a 10 to 8 matchup (between 2 assumed even players).
Cowboy Dennis
Verified Member
I don't think "the advantage" is measured by how close Shannon is to winning (absolute); I think it's measured by how much closer he is to winning than Efren is (relative).
[Deleted the rest of my too-long-winded post.]
pj <- just shootin' the breeze, Dennis
chgo
I'm shootin' the breeze too PJ
.Here's how I look at it: If they were playing a game like baseball or hockey that had a set number of innings played or minutes played and then whoever is ahead at the expiration of those innings or time limit wins, then I'd say yes, Daulton has a 2 ball lead because he'd be ahead 0 to -2 at the end, but since this is a game that only ends when he gets 8 balls then I'd say he's no closer to winning and has no advantage in my mind.
Efren suffers the disadvantage against the game, not against Daulton.
Dennis